Im posting this situation for my friend and I would appreciate you guys opinion on this. Heres the story.
About a month and half ago, he was in the Wal Mart Parking lot in Royal Oak. As he was backing out from his stall, he didnt quite see a car behind him. Therefore there was a light "bom" sound.
He drives a Jeep Grand Cherokee and the other car involved was a 4 door cobalt. The area that was hit on the jeep was rear right bumper (absolutely no visible damage). The area that was it on the Cobalt was about middle height of the rear right passenger door (no dent, no paint chip, absolutely nothing).
The both exchanged info right there and then and took pictures. To repeat, there was ABSOLUTELY NO VISIBLE DAMAGE on either cars. The impact was prob less than 5km/h.
So, no visible damage, no injury and exchanged info good to go right? Thats what my friend thought up until yesterday.
Yesterday, he got a from call from the woman (Colbalt driver) telling him that now the car is "shakey" and took it to her "dealer" and said it would cost $1000 to repair. The obvious question my friend asked was "$1000 to repair what"? She answered "Oh, I had contacted my insurance company about this and they told me not to disclose any details to you". My friend "well I need details to understand what the damage is if you are asking me for $1000". Although it is my friends "fault" of the collision, but if there are no visible sign of damage then is it still classified as an accident?
My friend does not want to go through insurance as his family did not get off to a good start for 2011. His dad passed away last month and their financials arent doing all that great as his mom just got laid off. Since his insurance is under his mom's name, he does not want to add any other more troubles / burden on her as what has happened.
I personally was not there when it happened, so I maybe have missed something but thats the overall picture
Sorry for bombarding you guys early in the morning with so much reading, but just wanted gather you guy's opinion on this
Thanks in advance!
About a month and half ago, he was in the Wal Mart Parking lot in Royal Oak. As he was backing out from his stall, he didnt quite see a car behind him. Therefore there was a light "bom" sound.
He drives a Jeep Grand Cherokee and the other car involved was a 4 door cobalt. The area that was hit on the jeep was rear right bumper (absolutely no visible damage). The area that was it on the Cobalt was about middle height of the rear right passenger door (no dent, no paint chip, absolutely nothing).
The both exchanged info right there and then and took pictures. To repeat, there was ABSOLUTELY NO VISIBLE DAMAGE on either cars. The impact was prob less than 5km/h.
So, no visible damage, no injury and exchanged info good to go right? Thats what my friend thought up until yesterday.
Yesterday, he got a from call from the woman (Colbalt driver) telling him that now the car is "shakey" and took it to her "dealer" and said it would cost $1000 to repair. The obvious question my friend asked was "$1000 to repair what"? She answered "Oh, I had contacted my insurance company about this and they told me not to disclose any details to you". My friend "well I need details to understand what the damage is if you are asking me for $1000". Although it is my friends "fault" of the collision, but if there are no visible sign of damage then is it still classified as an accident?
My friend does not want to go through insurance as his family did not get off to a good start for 2011. His dad passed away last month and their financials arent doing all that great as his mom just got laid off. Since his insurance is under his mom's name, he does not want to add any other more troubles / burden on her as what has happened.
I personally was not there when it happened, so I maybe have missed something but thats the overall picture
Sorry for bombarding you guys early in the morning with so much reading, but just wanted gather you guy's opinion on this
Thanks in advance!
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